Concerning Col. 1:19, even certain trinitarians admit that without the word "the", the fullness of God's own being is ambiguous here. Yet the NWT is not the only translation to do this. The very trinitarian KJV; JB; NJB; Douay; NAB (`70); MKJV (Green); Lattimore; and Webster's *ALSO* omit 'the' before 'fullness' in Col. 1:19.
--------------------------------------…
Besides, when Paul says: “God saw good for all fullness to dwell in him” (Col 1:19), this means that all fullness dwells in Christ because it “pleased the Father” (KJ, Dy), because it was “by God’s own choice.” (NE) So the fullness of “divinity” that dwells in Christ is his as a result of a decision made by the Father. Further showing that having such “fullness” does not make Christ the same person as Almighty God is the fact that Paul later speaks of Christ as being “seated at the right hand of God.”—Col 3:1. - http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1200001201?q=context+Colossians+2%3A9&p=par
Also, the trinitarian argument that Col. 1:19 proves that Jesus is God overlooks the common understanding of "fulness of ..." and "filled with ..." by those who used those common phrases in New Testament times. For example, the person who became "filled with Holy Spirit" (Eph. 5:18) was greatly influenced by that spirit, but he certainly did not become the Holy Spirit.
And having "the fulness" of someone or something could similarly mean being greatly influenced by that person or thing. The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology says:
"Just as a person can be full of pain, joy, love, and virtue, he can also be said to be filled with God ..., i.e. possessed and inspired by God." - Vol. 1, p. 734.
Surely we wouldn't expect anyone who is "filled with" God or who receives the "fulness of" God to actually *be* God. Nor would we expect anyone who has the "fulness of" Christ to actually *be* Christ. In fact, it clearly shows that he is NOT the person with whom he is "filled"!
Also see related article:
Col. 2:9 - "Fulness of Deity" (Examining the Trinity)
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------
BACK TO HOME PAGE INDEX
--------------------------------------…
Besides, when Paul says: “God saw good for all fullness to dwell in him” (Col 1:19), this means that all fullness dwells in Christ because it “pleased the Father” (KJ, Dy), because it was “by God’s own choice.” (NE) So the fullness of “divinity” that dwells in Christ is his as a result of a decision made by the Father. Further showing that having such “fullness” does not make Christ the same person as Almighty God is the fact that Paul later speaks of Christ as being “seated at the right hand of God.”—Col 3:1. - http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1200001201?q=context+Colossians+2%3A9&p=par
Also, the trinitarian argument that Col. 1:19 proves that Jesus is God overlooks the common understanding of "fulness of ..." and "filled with ..." by those who used those common phrases in New Testament times. For example, the person who became "filled with Holy Spirit" (Eph. 5:18) was greatly influenced by that spirit, but he certainly did not become the Holy Spirit.
And having "the fulness" of someone or something could similarly mean being greatly influenced by that person or thing. The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology says:
"Just as a person can be full of pain, joy, love, and virtue, he can also be said to be filled with God ..., i.e. possessed and inspired by God." - Vol. 1, p. 734.
Surely we wouldn't expect anyone who is "filled with" God or who receives the "fulness of" God to actually *be* God. Nor would we expect anyone who has the "fulness of" Christ to actually *be* Christ. In fact, it clearly shows that he is NOT the person with whom he is "filled"!
Also see related article:
Col. 2:9 - "Fulness of Deity" (Examining the Trinity)
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------
BACK TO HOME PAGE INDEX
